UGC NET December 2015 (A) Paper 1 with Answers

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UGC NET December 2015 (A) Paper 1 with Answers

 

UGC NET December 2015 (A) Paper 1 with Answers and Mock Test

 

Click Here to Start Mock Test

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 1 to 5.

It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.

A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years – old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80 % have never written a love letter, 56 % don’t have letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.

Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.

“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”

 

1. What is the main concern of the author?

(1) That the teens use computer.

(2) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

(3) That the teens use social networks for communication.

(4) That the teens use mobile phones.

 

Answer: (2) 

 

2. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean?

(1) A state of anxiety

(2) A state of pain

(3) A state of confusion

(4) A state of pleasure

 

Answer: (3) 

 

3. The entire existence of the author revolves round:

(a) Computer

(b) Mobile phone

(c) Typewriter

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (b) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

 

Answer: (4) 

 

4. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?

(1) 500

(2) 100

(3) 800

(4) 560

 

Answer: (2) 

 

5. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?

(1) Sketching

(2) Reading

(3) Handwriting

(4) Photography

 

Answer: (2) 

 

6. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?

(1) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.

(2) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

(3) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.

(4) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.

 

Answer: (4) 

 

7. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:

(1) Patenting policy

(2) Data sharing policies

(3) Thesis format

(4) Copyright

 

Answer: (3) 

 

8. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.

(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.

(c) It involves large groups of individuals.

(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

 

Answer: (2) 

 

9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?

(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays

(b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)

(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals

(d) Alphabetically index reference list

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

 

Answer: (4) 

 

10. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the:

(1) Teacher

(2) State

(3) Family

(4) Society

 

Answer: (1) 

 

11. What are required for good teaching?

(a) Diagnosis

(b) Remedy

(c) Direction

(d) Feedback

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (b)

 

Answer: (3) 

 

12. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titled:

(1) Learning: The Treasure Within

(2) World Declaration on Education for All

(3) International Commission on Education Report

(4) Millennium Development Report

 

Answer: (1) 

 

13. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?

(1) It is a collective process of enquiry.

(2) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.

(3) It recognizes knowledge as power.

(4) It emphasises on people as experts.

 

Answer: (2) 

 

14. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple – choice type questions?

(1) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.

(2) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.

(3) They are more objective than true-false type questions.

(4) They are less objective than essay type questions.

 

Answer: (3) 

 

15. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.

(b) It replaces marks with grades.

(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.

(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (b) and (d)

 

Answer: (2) 

 

16. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?

(1) Questionnaire

(2) Schedule

(3) Rating scale

(4) Interview

 

Answer: (1) 

 

17. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management

(b) Setting examples

(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test

(d) Acknowledging mistakes

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

 

Answer: (4) 

 

18. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as:

(1) Uncle

(2) Father

(3) Son

(4) Brother

 

Answer: (1) 

 

19. Every type of communication is affected by its:

(1) Non-regulation

(2) Context

(3) Reception

(4) Transmission

 

Answer: (2) 

 

20. Most often, the teacher – student communication is:

(1) Utilitarian

(2) Confrontational

(3) Spurious

(4) Critical

 

Answer: (1) 

 

21. The next term in the series:

B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, __?__ is:

(1) Q62J

(2) J58Q

(3) J56I

(4) I62Q

 

Answer: (2) 

 

22. Consider the argument given below:

‘Pre – employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’

What type of argument it is?

(1) Psychological

(2) Biological

(3) Deductive

(4) Analogical

 

Answer: (4) 

 

23. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:

(1) Stipulative

(2) Persuasive

(3) Lexical

(4) Precising

 

Answer: (1) 

 

24. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is:

(1) 18

(2) 24

(3) 12

(4) 14

 

Answer: (4) 

 

25. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3rd of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:

(1) 74

(2) 72

(3) 80

(4) 76

 

Answer: (2) 

 

26. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:

(1) the use of abstract concepts

(2) eye contact

(3) the use of hyperbole

(4) the change of voice level

 

Answer: (2) 

 

27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:

(1) 12 km

(2) 10 km

(3) 20 km

(4) 14 km

 

Answer: (2) 

 

28. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.

(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.

(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.

(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (a) only

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

 

Answer: (4) 

 

29. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(1) Some men are not honest

(2) No honest person is man

(3) All men are honest

(4) Some men are honest

 

Answer: (4) 

 

30. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:

(1) Para language

(2) Delivery language

(3) Physical language

(4) Personal language

 

Answer: (1) 

 

31. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:

(1) Impersonal

(2) Irrational

(3) Verbal

(4) Non-verbal

 

Answer: (4) 

 

32. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:

(A): No man is perfect.

(R): Some men are not perfect.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).

 

Answer: (3) 

 

33. The next term in the series

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, _____?_____ is:

(1) 62

(2) 72

(3) 50

(4) 57

 

Answer: (3) 

 

34. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called:

(1) An explanation

(2) A valid argument

(3) An inference

(4) An argument

 

Answer: (4) 

 

35. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.

Propositions:

(a) Some priests are cunning.

(b) No priest is cunning.

(c) All priests are cunning.

(d) Some priests are not cunning.

Codes:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b)

(4) (c) and (d)

 

Answer: (2) 

 

36. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:

(1) Idea protocol

(2) Mind mapping

(3) Systemisation

(4) Problem – orientation

 

Answer: (2) 

 

37. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in:

(1) the Concurrent List

(2) the Residuary Powers

(3) the Union List

(4) the State List

 

Answer: (4) 

 

38. Which of the following is not an input device?

(1) Joystick

(2) Monitor

(3) Microphone

(4) Keyboard

 

Answer: (2) 

 

39. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) West Bengal

(3) Maharashtra

(4) Rajasthan

 

Answer: (3) 

 

40. Which of the following is an open source software?

(1) Mozilla Firefox

(2) Acrobat Reader

(3) MS Word

(4) Windows

 

Answer: (1) 

 

41. NMEICT stands for:

(1) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT

(2) National Mission on E-learning through ICT

(3) National Mission on Education through ICT

(4) National Mission on E-governance through ICT

 

Answer: (3) 

 

42. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?

(1) Mail insert

(2) Mail merge

(3) Mail join

(4) Mail copy

 

Answer: (2) 

 

43. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:

(1) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

(2) not fixed

(3) 4 years

(4) 5 years

 

Answer: (2) 

 

44. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to:

(1) 250 GW

(2) 350 GW

(3) 175 GW

(4) 200 GW

 

Answer: (2) 

 

45. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.

(1) Russia > China > Brazil > India

(2) China > Russia > Brazil > India

(3) Brazil > Russia > China > India

(4) Russia > China > India > Brazil

 

Answer: (1) 

 

46. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are:

(a) Religion

(b) Sex

(c) Place of birth

(d) Nationality

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

 

Answer: (4) 

 

47. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:

(a) Unvented gas stoves

(b) Wood stoves

(c) Kerosene heaters

Choose the correct code:

(1) (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

 

Answer: (2) 

 

48. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?

(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.

(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.

(c) First – past – the Post electoral system is followed.

(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

 

Answer: (3) 

 

49. In a Computer a byte generally consists of:

(1) 16 bits

(2) 10 bits

(3) 4 bits

(4) 8 bits

 

Answer: (4) 

 

50. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.

(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.

(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.

(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

 

Answer: (4) 

 

51. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?

(a) WhatsApp

(b) Google Talk

(c) Viber

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (b) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

 

Answer: (2) 

 

52. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.

Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

 

Answer: (3) 

 

53. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?

(1) Landslide

(2) Chemical contamination

(3) Wildfire

(4) Lightning

 

Answer: (2) 

 

54. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?

(1) Lead

(2) Ozone

(3) Pesticides

(4) Mercury

 

Answer: (3) 

 

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a country.

 

YearPopulation (million)Electrical Power Production (GW)*
19512010
19612120
19712425
19812740
19913050
20013280
201135100
* 1 GW =1000 Million Watt

 

Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 55 to 60.

 

55. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?

(1) 2001-2011

(2) 1971-1981

(3) 1981-1991

(4) 1991-2001

 

Answer: (1) 

 

56. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?

(1) 400 W

(2) 500 W

(3) 100 W

(4) 200 W

 

Answer: (2) 

 

57. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:

(1) ~ 6.73%

(2) ~ 5%

(3) ~ 12.21%

(4) ~ 9.82%

 

Answer: (4) 

 

58. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?

(1) 37.28 million

(2) 36.62 million

(3) 40.34 million

(4) 38.49 million

 

Answer: (4) 

 

59. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011?

(1) 600%

(2) 900%

(3) 100%

(4) 300%

 

Answer: (2) 

 

60. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?

(1) 1991-2001

(2) 2001-2011

(3) 1961-71

(4) 1971-81

 

Answer: (3) 

 

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Read > UGC NET December 2015 (B) Paper 1 with Answers

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